For a random variable $X$, we are all familiar with how its mean, median and mode are defined. Let’s examine them again from a different perspective. For simplicity, let’s assume $X$ has finite first two moments. Let $\mu = \E(X)$ be its expectation, $m$ be its median.
If you are asked to choose one single number to describe the r.v. $X$, what would be the “best” choice? It sounds like choosing either mean, median or mode all makes sense. Let’s put it more formally, we want to find $c$ such that the expected loss $\E(d(X,c))$ is minimized, where $d(\cdot,\cdot)$ is some distance function. We consider the cases of $l_p$-norm raised to the power $p$ for different $p$’s.
- Mean is the minimizer when $d(\cdot,\cdot)$ is the squared $l_2$ distance, i.e.,
To see it, note that
\[\begin{aligned} \E(X-c)^2 & = \E(X-\mu + \mu-c)^2 \\ &= \E(X-\mu)^2+2\E(X-\mu)(\mu-c)+\E(\mu-c)^2 \\ & = \E(X-\mu)^2+(\mu-c)^2 \ge \E(X-\mu)^2, \end{aligned}\]where equality holds iff $c = \mu$.
- Median is the minimizer when $d(\cdot,\cdot)$ is the $l_1$ distance, i.e.,
We first rewrite $\E(|X-c|_1)$ in a convenient form as follows:
\[\begin{aligned} g(c) = \E\vert X-c\vert = \int_{0}^\infty P(\vert X-c \vert \ge t) ~dt & = \int_{0}^\infty P(X\ge c+t) ~dt +\int_{0}^\infty P(X<c-t) ~dt\\ &= \int_{c}^\infty P(X\ge s) ~ds -\int_{c}^{-\infty} P(X\le s) ~ds\\ &= \int_{c}^\infty P(X\ge s) ~ds +\int_{-\infty}^c P(X\le s) ~ds, \end{aligned}\]where for the second equality we used the formula for computing the expectation of a non-negative r.v.
Hence, $g(c) = \E \vert X-c \vert$ is differentiable almost everywhere. And we see that
\[\begin{aligned} g'(c) &= \frac{d}{dc}\left(\int_{c}^\infty P(X\ge s) ~ds +\int_{-\infty}^c P(X\le s) ~ds\right) \\ & = -P(X\ge c) + P(X\le c) = P(X\le c)-P(X\ge c), \end{aligned}\]which is less than 0 if $c$ is smaller than the median $m$, and is greater than 0 if $c$ is larger than the median $m$. Thus, $g(c)$ is decreasing on $(-\infty, m)$ and is increasing on $(m, \infty)$. So the minimizer is exactly the median.
- Mode is the minimizer when $d(\cdot,\cdot)$ is the $l_0$ distance, i.e.,
where $\vert x\vert_0$ is the number of nonzero elements. For one-dimensional case, it’s simply the indicator function: $\vert x\vert_0 = I{x\ne 0}$. Note that $\vert x\vert_0^0 = I{x\ne 0}^0 = I{x\ne 0}$ since $0^0 = 0$ and $x^0=1$ if $x\ne 0$.
Thus, we have the following:
\[\begin{aligned} \E(\|X-c\|_0) = \E(I\{X-c \ne 0\}) = P(X-c \ne 0) = P(X \ne c). \end{aligned}\]Minimizing $P(X \ne c)$ is the same as maximizing $P(X=c)$. For a discrete r.v. $X$, we just choose $c$ s.t. $P(X=c)$ is maximized. So $c$ is the mode. The continuous case doesn’t fit this set-up since for a continuous r.v. $X$, $P(X=c) \equiv 0, ~\forall c$.
An interesting bound on the difference between mean and median says that the absolute difference between mean and median is at most one standard deviation. We give a short proof which makes use of our previous findings below:
\[\begin{aligned} \vert \mu-m\vert=|\mathrm{E}(X-m)| & \leq \mathrm{E}|X-m|\\ & \leq \mathrm{E}|X-\mu| \leq \sqrt{\mathrm{E}\left(X-\mu\right)^{2}}=\sigma, \end{aligned}\]where the first and third inequalities follow from Jensen’s inequality, the second inequality comes from our claim 2 above.
Another point worth noting is that our previous claims regarding a r.v. $X$ can be extended to the case of a sample $x_1,\cdots, x_n$. For example, the constant $c$ that minimizes the MSE, $\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n (x_i -c )^2$, is the sample mean. We can adapt our arguments above to prove this claim. Similar steps can be done for the sample median and sample mode also. As a quick example, let’s look at the sample mode case. We want to minimize \(\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n \|x_i -c \|_0\) w.r.t $c$. Note that
\[\begin{aligned} \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n \|x_i -c \|_0 = \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n I\{x_i\ne c\} = \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n \left(1-I\{x_i= c\}\right) = 1- \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n I\{x_i= c\}. \end{aligned}\]Hence, minimizing $\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n \vert x_i -c \vert_0 $ is equivalent to maximizing
\[\begin{aligned} \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n I\{x_i = c\}, \end{aligned}\]which suggests that we need to pick $c$ to be the value that appears the most. So $c$ is the sample mode.